The class of bipartite graph in logic is axiomatizable. That's a fact.
So, it means that the following reasoning is incorrect:
We'll show that there exists a winning strategy for player 2 in Ehrenfeucht-Fraise's game.
$k$ is a number of runds. The first one is not bipartite- it has a odd number of vertices. The second one is an infinite graph- it is bipartie because of it easy to point 2-coloring function. It is easy to point strategy when in every $k-$rund EF game II player wins.
What is wrong?
@Noah, thanks I would like to ask question to your answer.
Obviously you are right:
there's no reason to believe that any one of these Gs is a model of the whole set of axioms describing the bipartite graphs.
Let $K $ be a class of structures. Let $A$ be a independent structure on $k$ and $A \not \in K$. Let $B \in K$ depends on $k$ where $k$ is number of runds. Let's assume that we have always a such strategy that a duplicator wins. But, we can also conclude that it doesn't mean that $K$ is not axiomatizable, right? Because, for any $B_k$ it is truth that $B_k \equiv_k A$ but, perhaps, there exists $(k+1)-$rund game in which spoiler wins. Right?
there's no reason to believe that any one of these Gs is a model of the whole set of axioms describing the bipartite graphs.
When we can belive by using E-F games?
If for each $M \in \mathbb{K}$ there is some $N \not \in \mathbb{K}$ such that Duplicator wins the length-n(*) game, then $\mathbb{K}$ is not axiomatizable by $k$-quantifier formulas; in particular, if this is true for every $k$ (as in the case of $\mathbb{K}=${bipartite graphs}), then $\mathbb{K}$ is not finitely axiomatizable. Note that $k$ may still be axiomatizable - e.g. {bipartite graphs} is axiomatizable via the axioms
If for each $M \in \mathbb{K}$ there is some $N \not \in \mathbb{K}$ such that Duplicator wins the...
Why each? It is enough we show that one structure from $\mathbb{K}$ cannot be distinguished from structure $S \not \in \mathbb{K}$ by the $k$-quanitifer formula for every $k$.
is not finitely axiomatizable
Why finitely? You show that for **every $k \in \mathbb{N}$. So, for every formulas. Probably, the reason is the fact that an axiomatizaion can be $ > \aleph_0$
- So how to show with E-F games that the class is not axiomatizable ( not finitely axiomatizable?)
You did a mess in my head, again... Thanks! :)
