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For $a,b>0$ and $b>a+1$, consider the contour integral

$$\oint_{|z|=a+\epsilon}\frac{\ln((z-a)(z-b))}{(z-a)(z-b)}dz.$$

This essentially corresponds to taking the residue at $z=a$. What does this result in?

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    Under integral $|z|=a+\epsilon$.?2017-02-16
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    Yes, thanks! I fixed it.2017-02-16
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    Looks like it to me. It is not removable since the numerator goes to $-\infty$ while the denominator goes to $0$.2017-02-16
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    But you need to find the Laurent series to do this, sadly.2017-02-16
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    Actually, since there could be some contour deformation trick that would make it trivial, I just adjusted the integral to exclude that possibility.2017-02-16
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    @TheCount Is there a general procedure I can use to find the Laurent series? I'm not scared if it is a lot of work. Looking for any way to get the result.2017-02-16
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    It's the expansion of $1/(z-a)$ times the expansion of $\ln(z-a)$. Do-able, but gross. Your residue is the coefficient on the $z^{-1}$ term.2017-02-16
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    What series representation for the $\ln$ should I use though?2017-02-16
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    @TheCount, makes sense asking for the residue/Laurent series around a *branch* point?2017-02-19
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    @Martín-BlasPérezPinilla I'm just spitballin' here.2017-02-19

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