For $a,b>0$ and $b>a+1$, consider the contour integral
$$\oint_{|z|=a+\epsilon}\frac{\ln((z-a)(z-b))}{(z-a)(z-b)}dz.$$
This essentially corresponds to taking the residue at $z=a$. What does this result in?
For $a,b>0$ and $b>a+1$, consider the contour integral
$$\oint_{|z|=a+\epsilon}\frac{\ln((z-a)(z-b))}{(z-a)(z-b)}dz.$$
This essentially corresponds to taking the residue at $z=a$. What does this result in?