My title may need some help, but I am asking about a specific optimization problem and whether the interaction between correlated terms is a concern and whether I am setting up the objective function correctly.
If we have a variable cost that is a percentage (x) of gross revenue and another variable cost (y) that is tied to the number of total products (n), we find that the profit increases as the number of products increases. To add to the complexity of this, each product can be sold at a variety of different prices to different customers.
For example, we could sell 2 products to 3 customers at $10, $15, $12 for products A, B, B, respectively.
To sell to everyone must pay costs of \$(10+15+12) * 30% = \$11.10 as well as product costs of 2 * \$9 = \$18. So we have in my function below an objective score (to minimize) of -\$37 + \$11.1 + \$18 = -\$7.90.
It seems clear here that we are only able to sell product B at \$12.00 because the product cost of $9 is 'shared' between the two customers.
If we had only sold to customer 3 at \$12 we would have a contribution to the objective of -\$12 + \$3.60 + \$9 = \$0.60. If we had only sold to customer 2 at \$15 it would be -\$15 + \$4.50 + \$9 = -\$1.50, but combined it is -\$27 + \$8.10 + \$9 = -\$9.90.
If we are optimizing to maximize net profit, is it correct to have an objective function =
[-gross_revenue + (gross_revenue * x%) + n*y] ?
Are the other (or better) approaches to implementing this? Is the interaction between sales and product costs creating collinearity that would be a concern?