If $T:X\to Y$ is a bounded linear transformation of Banach spaces $X$ and $Y$, then there is an adjoint transformation $Y^*\to X^*$ that satifies $
One standard result is that $\left \| T \right \|=\left \| T^{*} \right \|.$ I have seen several proofs of this fact but I have a question about Rudin's.
Rudin writes the following sequence of equalities:
$\left \| T \right \|=\sup \left \{\langle Tx,y^{*} \rangle:\left \| x\leq 1 \right \|,\left \| y^{*}\le 1 \right \| \right \}=\\\sup \left \{\langle x,T^*y^{*} \rangle:\left \| x\leq 1 \right \|,\left \| y^{*}\le 1 \right \| \right \}=\\ \sup \left \{T^*y^{*}:\left \| y^{*}\le 1 \right \| \right \}=\left \| T^{*} \right \|$
which I take to mean:
$\left \| T \right \|=\sup_\left \{ \left \| x \right \|\le 1 \right \}(\sup_\left \{ \left \| y^* \right \|\le 1 \right \}\left \{\langle Tx,y^{*} \rangle \right \})=\\ \left \| T \right \|=\sup_\left \{ \left \| x \right \|\le 1 \right \}(\sup_\left \{ \left \| y^* \right \|\le 1 \right \}\left \{\langle x,T^*y^{*} \rangle \right \})=\\ \left \| T \right \|=\sup_\left \{ \left \| y^* \right \|\le 1 \right \}(\sup_\left \{ \left \| x \right \|\le 1 \right \}\left \{\langle x,T^*y^{*} \rangle \right \})=\left \| T^* \right \|.$
My question is simple: what justifies the interchange of the suprema? The way Rudin writes it, he seems to be claiming in general that that if $f\in \mathscr F, $ and $x\in X$, then $\sup_{\mathscr F}\sup_{X}f(x)=\sup_{X}\sup_{\mathscr F}f(x), $which is intuitive enough, but I have not been able to prove it.