That is, if $AB = BA$. I can see that it is true if all the eigenvalues of $A$ or $B$ are distinct. Let $(\lambda, \textbf{x})$ be an eigenpair of $A$ (or whichever one has distinct eigenvalues). So
\begin{align*} A\textbf{x} = \lambda \textbf{x} \\ BA\textbf{x} = \lambda B \textbf{x} \\ AB\textbf{x} = \lambda B \textbf{x} \end{align*}
So either $(\lambda, B\textbf{x})$ is an eigenpair of $A$ or $B\textbf{x} = \textbf{0}$ and then $(0, \textbf{x})$ is an eigenapair of $B$. If the first is the case, $B\textbf{x}$ must be a multiple of $\textbf{x}$ as $\lambda$ already has an eigenvector associated with it and it can have no more.
In fact, if $A$ or $B$ has all distinct eigenvalues then it seems they must have exactly the same eigenvectors. I'm not sure how to get the result I actually want though.
Edit: The family of commuting matrices sharing an eigenvector definitely encompasses this result, but the tools used their are beyond what we've developed in the course I'm taking.