Let $J_{\nu}(z)$ denote the Bessel function of the first kind. Then, according to this page, we have the recurrence relation
$$\displaystyle J_{\nu}(z) = \frac{2(\nu + 1)}{z}J_{\nu + 1}(z) - J_{\nu + 2}.$$
Taking $\nu = 1$, we can inductively express $J_{1}$ in the following ways:
$$\displaystyle J_{1}(z) = \frac{4}{z}J_{2}(z) - J_{3}(z)$$ $$\displaystyle = \frac{4}{z}\left( \frac{6}{z}J_{3}(z) - J_{4}(z) \right) - \left( \frac{8}{z}J_{4}(z) - J_{5}(z) \right)$$ $$\displaystyle = \ ...$$
Thus, my question is: can we write
$$\displaystyle J_{1}(z) = \sum_{n = 1}^{\infty}\frac{a_{n}J_{\nu_n}(z)}{z^{n}}$$
for some real coefficients $a_i$ and indices $\nu_i$, or something similar?
This question seems to suggest that we can, for large $z$.
Equation 10.17.3 here also seems relevant, except without the Bessel functions appearing in the summands. I am particularly interested if it is possible to come up with a series starting with $z^{-1}$ rather than $z^0$.