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It has been a long time since I've done combinatorics, does anybody knows how to sum this series? $$\sum_{d=0}^\infty \binom{n+d-1}d q^d$$ I'm assuming no problems of convergence since in fact is a formal series...

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    Did you compute the very first terms ?2017-02-16
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    the very first term 1,$\left(\begin{array}{c} n\\ 1\end{array}\right)$, $\left(\begin{array}{c} n+1\\ 2\end{array}\right)$,$\left(\begin{array}{c} n+2\\ 3\end{array}\right)$,...2017-02-16
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    It seems that you changed the problem from the first edit.2017-02-16
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    I didn't. I changed the formatting but not the problem. Probably just missaw the coefficient in the series...2017-02-16
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    ${n + d - 1 \choose d} = {-n \choose d}\left(-1\right)^{d}$.2017-02-17

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Hint. One may use the Generalized Binomial Theorem $$ \frac{1}{(1-q)^n} = \sum_{k=0}^\infty {-n \choose k}(-1)^k q^k ,\qquad |q|<1, $$ observing that $$ \binom{-n}k =\frac1{k!}\prod_{i=0}^{k-1}(-n-i) =\frac{(-1)^k}{k!}\prod_{i=0}^{k-1}(n+i) =\frac{(-1)^k}{k!}\cdot\frac{(n+k-1)!}{(n-1)!} =(-1)^k\binom{n+k-1}k $$ to get

$$ \sum_{d=0}^\infty \binom{n+d-1}d q^d=\frac{1}{(1-q)^n} ,\qquad |q|<1. $$

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    I'm really an idiot... I was on that just few minutes ago and didn't see it. Thank you very much!2017-02-16
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    You started from the rhs which was not given in the first version of the post. Cheers :-)2017-02-16
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    @ClaudeLeibovici The second line shows the link... Thanks.2017-02-16
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    It is not what I was meaning. When I commented, there not $=\text{RHS}$ but just the $\text{LHS}$. By the way, your solution is nice (again !). Cheers.2017-02-16
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    @ClaudeLeibovici I understand what you meant ;) Thank you.2017-02-16
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    @Dac0 Lol, no one expects you to realize binomial expansion theorem with negative exponents transforms so nicely, so don't be so hard on yourself.2017-02-18
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    @SimplyBeautifulArt Thank you :) Is that I was staring at the very same relation few minutes before without realizing that was the one I was looking for :D :D :D Guess it happens ;)2017-02-18