Hint:
$$P(\max_{i\leq n} X_i \leq u) = \prod_{i=1}^nP(X_i\leq u)$$
This is because the max of a bunch of things less than $u$ is equivalent to all those things less than $u$. The product form happens because the variables are independent.
Can you work out the rest? If you need more help, let me know in comments.
Update:
So basically you have to evaluate $(1-e^{-u})^n$ which happens to be the RHS above.
Put $u=a\log n$. You get
$$\left(1-\frac{1}{n^a}\right)^n = \left(1-\frac{1}{n^a}\right)^{n^a(n/n^a)}$$
Now we know $(1-\frac{1}{n})^n\to e^{-1}$. Hence as $n^a\to \infty$, we get $(1-\frac{1}{n^a})^{n^a}\to e^{-1}$. Now $e^{-1} < 1$, so we have that for any $\delta>0$, for $n$ large enough
$$e^{-1}-\delta\le \left(1-\frac{1}{n^a}\right)^{n^a} \leq e^{-1}+\delta$$
Here pick any $\delta$ such that $e^{-1}+\delta < 1$.
Now
$$0\leq \left(1-\frac{1}{n^a}\right)^{n^a(n/n^a)} \leq (e^{-1}+\delta)^{n^{1-a}}\to 0 $$
For the $b$ case, use a similar argument except you need the lower bound now. Just pick $\delta$ such that $e^{-1}+\delta>0$ and note that probabilities cannot exceed $1$.