Let $X_t$ be the (strong) solution of the SDE \begin{align} {dX_{t}=a\,dt+\sigma X_{t}\,dW_{t}},\ \ X_0=x_0.\tag{$\star$} \end{align} where $a,\sigma,x_0\in \mathbb{R}$, and $W$ is the 1-dimensional standard Brownian motion.
Question: For fixed $t$, is the random variable $X_t-x_0e^{at}$ lognormal? Or is it not?
Attempt: We have the mild solution of $(\star)$: $$X_t=x_0e^{ta}+\int_0^t e^{a(t-s)} \sigma X_s dW_s,$$ and thus suffices to show $\int_0^t e^{a(t-s)} \sigma X_s dW_s$ is lognormal.
Now, consider the SDE $dS_{t}=\sigma S_{t}\,dW_{t},\ \ S_0=x_0.$ Then, we have $\sigma S_{t}\,dW_{t}=0S_{t}dt+\sigma S_{t}\,dW_{t}$, i.e., the solution is given by the geometric BM:$$S_{t}=S_{0}\exp \left(\left(-{\frac {\sigma ^{2}}{2}}\right)t+\sigma W_{t}\right).$$ But we also have the solution as the solution of the integral equation $S_{t}=\int_0^t e^{a(t-s)} \sigma S_s dW_s$. Thus $\int_0^t e^{a(t-s)} \sigma S_s dW_s$ is lognormal.
But $X$ satisfies a "shifted" integral equation and not sure consequences of that. Also, for the geometric BM we could divide the both sides by $S_t$ which leads to the nice form to which It\^{o}'s formula can be applied, but not sure how to do that for $(\star)$.