I can undestand some evidences that Hindley-Milner(HM) is a subsystem of System-F. HM only allows $\forall$ in the left of a monotype (or other $\forall$). System-F allows $\forall$ anywhere in the type and allows to pass polymorphic terms uninstantiated to functions (say $\lambda f.(f\: True, f\: 1)$).
But, how every well-typed term in HM is well a well-typed term in System-F?
First, we should make every term in HM be a term in System-F.
So the crutial step is to convert $let$ terms in HM to some $\lambda$-term in System-F. Would the naive interpretation
$let\: x\: =\: e_1\: in\: e_2 \equiv (\lambda x.e_2)e_1$
be enough?
Edit:
Also observed that both systems don't have the same deductive rules.