In the context of a measure theory and integration couse the following exercise came up:
Let $$Q := (0,1) \times (0,1) \subset \mathbb{R}^2$$ and consider the map $$ f : Q \to \mathbb{R},\, (x,y) \mapsto \frac{1}{1 - xy}.$$
Assume that $f$ is Lebesgue-integrable and compute the value of the integral $$\int_{Q} f(x,y)\, d\lambda^2(x,y)$$ using the substitution (i.e. linear transformation)
$$\begin{pmatrix} x \\ y \end{pmatrix} = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\begin{pmatrix} 1 & -1 \\ 1 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} u \\ v \end{pmatrix}.$$
My first question is: how do you come up with that quite specific substitution?
The second question is about the solution to the problem that I actually received but did not fully comprehend since many steps have been omitted. According to the solution, the first thing one should have done there is to come up with the set $$Q' := \{ (u,v) \in \mathbb{R}^2 \vert 0 < u < \sqrt{2}, -\min(u, \sqrt{2} - u) < v < \min(u, \sqrt{2} - u)\}$$ quite magically $\textit{by definition}$ and then perform the relatively easy change of variables under the linear transformation $\phi : Q' \to Q$ given above. Hence, my second question: How to come up with the set $Q'$ analytically? In the solution it was introduced by definition 'falling from the sky'. Can one derive it in any way? I would have never arrived there frankly just by guessing. I heard that there might be a geometrical reason which is based on the rotation of the cube $Q$ but I couldn't read much sense into that.
