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I have part of a proof that I'm struggling with in a textbook where: $$b(x) := \dfrac{xU(x)}{\int_0^x \ U(t)dt}$$ The author suggests that 'integrating $\frac{b(x)}{x}$ leads to the representation': $$\int_0^x \ U(s)ds = c\exp\bigg(\int_1^x \ t^{-1}b(t)dt\bigg)$$ However, I cannot quite see how this occurs. Is the author using the integrating factor somewhere to get this exponential function?

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Hint:

If we denote $g(x) = \int_{0}^{x}U(t)dt$, then $g'(x) = U(x)$ (as a derivative of the integral of upper bound). So in terms of $g(x)$, we will have $\frac{b(x)}{x} = \frac{g'(x)}{g(x)}$. So integrating $\frac{b(t)}{t}= t^{-1}b(t)$ is the same as integrating $\frac{g'(t)}{g(t)}$. For which the antiderivative is $\ln (g(t))$.

However I'm not sure with the lower bound 1. Do we know that $x\geq1$?

And I'm sorry. I just didn't manage to fit this in the comments.

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    Thank you for your comment! It has helped me understand the general gist of the question. I'm also not sure on the lower bound and it seems rather arbitrary when I look at the notes (these notes are from 'Heavy Tail Phenomena' by Sidney Resnick) - maybe I've missed it somewhere?2017-02-15
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    No, I just wonder. Suppose that we take $0 \leq x <1$. What would be the integral then? (Something reversed using the properties of integral?).2017-02-15