Definition: Let $f$ be defined on $[a,+\infty)$, and $f$ is a Riemann integrable function on $[a,x]$ for any $x\geq a$, if $\lim\limits_{x\to+\infty}\int_a^xf(t)dt$ exists , denoted by $\int_a^{+\infty}f(x)dx$. Suppose it equals to $J\in\mathbb{R}$, then we call that $f$ has an infinite integral $\int_a^{+\infty}f(x)dx=J$.
Suppose a real-value function $y=f(x)$ is continuous on $[a,+\infty)$ and $\lim\limits_{x\to+\infty}f(x)$ does not exist and $\lim\limits_{x\to+\infty}f(x)\neq\infty$. If the infinite integral $\int_a^{+\infty}|f(x)|dx$ converges, i.e. $\int_a^{+\infty}f(x)dx$ absolutely converges, then $f$ is bounded on $[a,+\infty)$? If the condition modifies that $\lim\limits_{x\to+\infty}|f(x)|\neq+\infty$, and the rest of the conditions remain the same, then the conclusion is also right or wrong? Thanks a lot.