Two r.v.'s $X,Y$ are uncorrelated if their covariance $COV (X,Y) = 0$.
Recall that $COV (XY) = E(XY) - E(X)E(Y)$. Moreover, when $X$ is uniform on $[-2,2]$ (and thus symmetric around $0$, then $E(X^k) = 0$ when $k$ is an odd integer.
Now you are ready to compute
$$COV (XY) = E(XY) - E(X)E(Y) = E(X \cdot X^6) - E(X)E(X^6) = E(X^7)- E(X)E(X^6) =0$$
because $E(X)=E(X^7) = 0$.
[ADDED AFTER YOUR REQUEST in comments]
Two r.v.'s $X,Y$ are independent if $P(A_X \cap B_Y) = P(A_X) P(B_Y)$ for any event $A_X$ concerning $X$ and any event $B_Y$ concerning $Y$.
Let $A_X = \{ X \ge 1 \}$ and $B_Y = \{ Y \ge 1 \}$. Then
$$P(A_X \cap B_Y) = P (X \ge 1, Y \ge 1) = P (X \ge 1) = \frac{1}{4}$$
but
$$P(A_X) P (B_Y) = P (X \ge 1) P(Y \ge 1) = \frac{1}{4} \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{8}$$
Thus, $X$ and $Y$ are not independent.