Everyone knows that the eigenvalues of an operator $L$ are the values $\lambda$ such that $Lx=\lambda x$.
Yet in all expositions of Sturm-Liouville theory I've seen (including Wikipeda's), the eigenvalues of a Sturm-Liouville problem with Sturm-Liouville operator $S$ are the numbers $\lambda$ such that $Sx+\lambda x=0$. Surely we can forgive the untutored mathematician seeing this material for the first time who protests: no! If $Sx+\lambda x=0$, "the eigenvalues," which is surely elliptical for "the eigenvalues of the operator $S$," are $-\lambda$ (i.e. the set of values $-\lambda$ such that a solution $x$ exists).
Why, oh why, is this the case? Yes, mathematical notation varies in all manner of ways, but this departure strikes me as supremely ridiculous, even if it means the eigenvalues according to the usual definition will usually come out to be negative. I ask because I haven't seen this material in a while and just spent ten minutes trying to convince a student that the eigenvalues of an S-L problem of the above form must be $-\lambda$.