Let $p\in\mathbb Z$, $p>1$. Prove that $$ p\text{ is prime}\iff p\text{ has no divisor }d\text{ where }1
It is easy to show "$\implies$"; if $p$ is prime, then its only positive divisors are 1 and $p$ itself. Therefore, there are no divisors $d$ for which it holds that $1 However, I'm having trouble with "$\impliedby$". I was thinking of using the contrapositive. So assume $p$ is not prime. Then we would like to show that $p$ has a divisor $d$ such that $1 From here on I wouldn't know how to continue. Could someone help me out? EDIT This is my proof then, based on the hints given: Assume $p$ is not prime. Then $p$ must have at least one divisor $d$, such that $1