How can this equation be solved in the complex field as $z=x+iy$
$$ z^2+z\overline{z}-2z =0 $$
I get to one of the solution but not the other one , can someone explain thoroughly
How can this equation be solved in the complex field as $z=x+iy$
$$ z^2+z\overline{z}-2z =0 $$
I get to one of the solution but not the other one , can someone explain thoroughly
$z^2+z\overline z-2z=0\implies (z-1)^2=1-|z|^2\in \mathbb R\implies$ $$(i) \quad z-1=A\in \mathbb R$$ $$OR$$ $$(ii) \quad z-1=iA \text { with } A\in \mathbb R.$$ Observe that for (i) we have $(z^2+z\overline z-2z=0 \land z\in \mathbb R)\iff 2z^2-2z=0\iff (z=0\lor z=1.)$
For (ii) when $z=1+iA$ with $A\in \mathbb R$ we have $z^2+z\overline z-2z=(1-A^2+2iA)+(1+A^2)-2(1+iA)=0.$
Since the solution $z=1$ belongs to both type (i) and type (ii) we can write the solution set as $\{0\}\cup \{1+iA: A\in \mathbb R\}.$
$$z^2+z\overline{z}-2z =0\quad (1)\\ \overline{z}^2+z\overline{z}-2\overline{z} =0\quad (2)$$
Now make $(1)-(2)$ and get
$$(z^2-\overline{z}^2)-2(z-\overline{z})=0\to(z-\overline{z})(z+\overline{z}-2)=0$$
EDIT
The final equation comes from an implication (not an equivalence). It means that once one find the values it is necessary to test in the original equation.
One obvious solution is $z=0$,. The other ( for $z=x+iy$) is the solution of: $$ z+\bar z-2=0 \iff 2x-2=0 \iff x=1 $$
Note that $z^2+z\bar z-2z=0\implies (2x^2-2x)+i2(x-1)y=0$.
\begin{eqnarray*} 2x(x-1)+2iy(x-1)=0 \end{eqnarray*} Now equate real & imaginary parts. So $x=1$ will satisfy both equations and any value of y will do. alternatively $y=0$ and then $x=0$ will be forced. So the two solutions are \begin{eqnarray*} z=1+iy \\ or \\ z=0 \end{eqnarray*}