In the comments to your question, you indicate that your professor began by showing that $(0, 1)$ is uncountable. I actually think this is a bad way to start; it will be easier to understand the proof of the uncountability of set of infinite sequences of natural numbers, $\mathbb{N}^\mathbb{N}$.
Why? Well,there is a slight issue in the uncountability of the interval $(0, 1)$ - namely the fact that some reals have two decimal expansions (like $0.1000000...=0.0999999....$) - which forces us to be a little weird (this is the whole "if $x_i(i)<8$ . . ." business).
So let me explain why $\mathbb{N}^\mathbb{N}$ is uncountable. Suppose I have a "counting" of some infinite sequences - that is, a map $f: \mathbb{N}\rightarrow \mathbb{N}^\mathbb{N}$. (I think of $f$ as a list: the first element on the list is $f(1)$, the second is $f(2)$, etc.)
Now I want to build a "missing sequence" - that is, an infinite sequence of natural numbers which is "not on the list" (that is, not in the range of $f$). To do this, it will be enough to build a sequence $s\in \mathbb{N}^\mathbb{N}$ satisfying the following property:
For each $n$, there is some place where $s$ differs from $f(n)$: that is, some $i$ such that the $i$th term of $s$ is different from the $i$th term of $f(n)$. (Remember that $f(n)$ is a sequence.)
Why? Well, if $s=f(n)$ for some $n$, then each of the terms of $s$ and $f(n)$ had better be the same: if the $57$th term of $s$ is $0$, but the $57$th term of $f(n)$ is $5$, they're clearly different sequences!
So how can I do this? Well, I'll define $s$ so that the $n$th term of $s$ is different from the $n$th term of $f(n)$, for each $n$. This will be enough to make $s$ different from each $f(n)$, that is, not on the list.
And this isn't hard to do - just add $1$! For instance, if the first four sequences on my list look like
$f(1) = (4, 2, 5, 1, . . .)$,
$f(2) = (1, 52, 2, 8, . . .)$,
$f(3) = (0, 0, 0, 0, . . . )$,
$f(4) = (5, 10, 15, 20, . . .)$,
then my $s$ will begin as follows: $$s = (5, 53, 1, 21, . . .)$$
This $s$ isn't $f(1)$, since the first term of $s$ is different from the first term of $f(1)$. It's not $f(2)$, since the second term is different from the second term of $f(2)$. And so on.
Formally, here's how we define $s$:
$$s(n)=f(n)(n)+1$$
(here "$f(i)(j)$" means "the $j$th term of $f(i)$," so e.g. in my example above $f(1)(3)=5$).
It's clear that for each $n$, the $n$th term of $s$ is different from the $n$th term of $f(n)$; so $s\not=f(n)$ for any $n$. In particular, $s$ is not on the list.
This shows that any listing of infinite sequences of naturals is incomplete - that is, there is no bijection from $\mathbb{N}$ to $\mathbb{N}^\mathbb{N}$.
Now, do you see how to adapt this idea to infinite binary sequences? Note that adding $1$ to each term doesn't work anymore, since if you do that you don't get a binary sequence ($2\not\in \{0, 1\}$). But there's something else you can do . . .