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Suppose that $A$ is a nonsingular and $B$ is a singular $n\times n$ matrix. $B^-$ is a generalized inverse of $B$. The following statement is valid?

$(AB)^-=B^-A^{-1}$

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A generalized inverse $(AB)^-$ must satisfy the equation $$ AB(AB)^-AB=AB. $$

Since $A$ is nonsingular, it is enough to check $$ B(B^-A^{-1})AB=B. $$

But this holds since cancelling $A^{-1}$ with $A$, this amounts to $BB^-B=B$, which is the defining property of a generalized inverse.

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    It's very clear. Thank you so much!2017-02-14