NOTE: There are some other similar questions, but I got a negative answer to this question from my proof. Please find out the errors in my reasoning.
$\mathbf {Claim:}$ Is every point of every open set $E \subset R^2$ a limit point of E? Answer the same question for closed sets in $E \subset R^2$
From "Baby Rudin"
$\mathbf {Proof:}$ $\emptyset$ is both open and closed in every topological space. $R^2$ is a metric space, which is a kind of topological space, so $\emptyset$ is both open and closed in it. $\emptyset$ has no limit point because its neighborhood has no other point to include, so we can get a negative answer to both questions.
If possible, please have a look at the two questions that I got while reading the answer to this similiar question: Proof that every point of every open set E⊂ℝ^2 is a limit point of E?⊂ℝ2-is-a-limit-point-of-e
- "$q_s=(x_1+s,x_2)$" should be $q_s=(x_1+s,y_1)$, right?
- I still don't understand why there should be $\epsilon$. Why can't r complete the proof?
I don't have the right to comment on the original post led by the above link, so I ask the two questions here. Finally, I find this forum very active, responsive and helpful, but not quite friendly to newcomers.