Lemma: Let $E$ be a subset of $\Bbb{R}$ and suppose that $E$ is bounded above. Then there exists a sequence $(a_n)$ of elements in $E$ that converges to $\alpha := \sup E$.
Proof: For every $n$, there exists $a_n \in E$ such that
$$
\alpha-\frac{1}{n} \leq a_n \leq \alpha \tag{$\star$}
$$
Indeed, there must exists an $a_n \in E$ such that $\alpha-\frac{1}{n} \leq a_n$ (otherwise $\alpha-\frac{1}{n}$ would be an upper bound for $E$) and since $\alpha$ is an upper bound for $E$, it must also be the case that $a_n \leq \alpha$.
In view of $(\star)$, the squeeze theorem shows that $(a_n)$ converges to $\alpha$. $\blacksquare$
Now, for your question, let $(a_n)$ be your bounded sequence. This means that the subset $A := \{a_n : n \in \mathbb{N}\}$ consisting of the elements of $(a_n)$ is bounded in $\mathbb{R}$. Applying the above lemma with $E = A$, we see that if $A$ has no maximum then at least its supremum is the limit of a subsequence of $(a_n)$.