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In other words, prove $${n \choose 2} =\frac{n(n+1)}{2}$$

I am attempting to solve this proof using combinatorics. I know that by definition, $${n \choose 2} = \frac{n!}{2!(n-2)!}$$

So equivalently $$\frac{n(n+1)}{2}=\frac{n!}{2(n-2)!}$$

$$\frac{n(n+1)}{2}=\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)!}{2(n-2)!}$$

$$\frac{n(n+1)}{2}=\frac{n(n-1)}{2}$$

But how is this possible? I appreciate any input–thanks in advance!

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The answer is indeed

$$ \binom{n}{2}=\frac{n(n-1)}{2}. $$

You actually proved this above. There must be a misprint in the original question.

Otherwise, as you concluded, $$ \frac{n(n+1)}{2}=\frac{n(n-1)}{2}\implies n=0. $$

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    Thanks for the answer! I was hoping there was some way this would work out, but as you explained it that makes sense. I just wish I didn't have to tell my professor that he made a typo in his textbook, lol.2017-02-14
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    I'm sure he'd appreciate your observant eye!2017-02-14