So, I'm having a little difficulty understanding one step in the resolution of an exercise of statistics. In the image below, how did $\sum_{k=a+1}^{b}\frac{b-k+1}{b-a+1}$(1) become $\frac{1}{b-a+1}\sum_{k=1}^{b-a}k$?(2) I understand why $\frac{1}{b-a+1}$ was pulled out of the summation. What I don't understand is where $\sum_{k=1}^{b-a}k$ came from.
$$P(Y\ge k)=\begin{cases}1&k\le a\\\frac{b-k+1}{b-a+1}&a+1\le k\le b\\0&k\ge b+a\end{cases}$$
So
$$\begin{align}\sum_{k=1}^\infty P(y\ge k)&=\sum_{k=1}^a1+\sum_{k=a+1}^b\frac{b-k+1}{b-a+1}\tag1\\&=a+\frac1{b-a+1}\sum_{k=1}^{b-a}k\tag2\\\end{align}$$
(http://i66.tinypic.com/2qx6xqo.png)
Here are the links both for the exercise (3, b) and the solution from which I took the image, just in case someone wants to check it out:
Thanks.