With your rules, I would always play -- assuming no entry fee --since since the worst I can do is collect nothing with a 50% chance and collect something with a 50% chance. If I have to pay $4$ dollars to play then there is a only a probability of $1/8$ that I do not lose money or break even.
Would you play if the entry fee were $16$ dollars?
The infinite expectation is an artifact of the payoff growing as $2^n$ with associated probability decaying as $1/2^{n+1}.$ Even moderately large payoffs are extremely unlikely events. Furthermore, the expected gain of $\infty$ is meaningless if you are risk averse since, as the entry fee becomes higher, the probability of not winning money tends to $1$. There would be a limit to how much you would be willing to pay to play in spite of an infinite expectation.
What you would pay to play would then depend on your utility function which would consider the entire return distribution and probability of loss. With log utility as suggested by Bernoulli, the expected utility is finite:
$$\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{\log 2^k}{2^{k+1}} = \log 2 \approx 0.7$$
With such a risk averse utility function you would pay no more than a $1$ dollar entry fee.
Note also that the expected duration of the game is finite:
$$\sum_{k=1}^\infty \frac{k}{2^k} = 2.$$
On average the game lasts for $2$ throws where you win $2$ dollars. Now consider that if I ask you to pay $16$ dollars to play.