I have a continuous random variable $x$ and a function $f(x)$ such that $f(x)>0$ and $f'(x)<0$ for every $x$.
Under what conditions can we say that the covariance between $x$ and $f(x)$ is negative? Is it always true? Or is there a counterexample where the covariance is positive or zero? Do I need to assume other properties of $f(.)$, such that, it is convex?
I know for instance that if $X$ is normally distributed with zero mean, then, $Cov(X,X^2)=0$. Is there a counterexample such that $Cov(x,f(x))=0$ or $Cov(x,f(x))>0$, with the properties assumed for $f(x)$?