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Let $r_1 , r_2 , ... , r_n $ $ϵ$ $R$ so that $r_1 \times r_2 \times ... \times r_n = 1 $. Prove or disprove: if there exists an $i$ so that $r_i<1$, then there exists a $j$ so that $r_j>1$.

In my course we have only seen the following methods of proofs: direct, by contradiction, contraposition, and induction.

Thanks!

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    Not necessarily, for instance $(-1)\times (-1)\times 1 = 1$ but we have $r_1<1$ while none of $r_i$'s are larger than $1$2017-02-13
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    You're a genius. Thanks, friend!2017-02-13

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