I know that the squeeze Theorem holds if $f(x)\le g(x)\le h(x)$.
Does it also hold if $f(x)< g(x)< h(x)$ ? Or maybe a combination of "$\le$" and "$<$"? If not, then can I have a counterexample?
I know that the squeeze Theorem holds if $f(x)\le g(x)\le h(x)$.
Does it also hold if $f(x)< g(x)< h(x)$ ? Or maybe a combination of "$\le$" and "$<$"? If not, then can I have a counterexample?
Well $a