If we define $E_1 = \mathbb{R}$ and for each $n \geq 2$ define $E_n = (n, \infty)$.
Would $m(\cap_{n=1}^\infty E_n)$ be zero or infinity?
Where $m$ is Lebesgue measure.
Lebesgue measure of the intersection of intervals
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measure-theory
1 Answers
3
The intersection $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty E_n$ is empty, so the measure is zero.