I was wondering how to prove that $\mathbb R^n$$-0$ deformation retracts to a sphere $\mathbb S^n$$^-$$^1$?
And also, why is the punctured disk contractible, i.e. why is $\mathbb D^2$$-${$(1,0)$} contractible?
I was wondering how to prove that $\mathbb R^n$$-0$ deformation retracts to a sphere $\mathbb S^n$$^-$$^1$?
And also, why is the punctured disk contractible, i.e. why is $\mathbb D^2$$-${$(1,0)$} contractible?
For proving that $X=\mathbb R^n-\{0\}$ deformation retracts to $S^{n-1}$, take $$r:\mathbb R^n-\{0\}\longrightarrow S^{n-1}, \ r(x)=\frac{x}{\lVert x \rVert}$$ which is a retract, and now you have to prove that $i\circ r\equiv Id_X$. To do this, take the homotopy $$H:X\times [0,1] \longrightarrow X, \quad H(x,t)=tx+(1-t)\frac{x}{\lVert x \rVert}$$ Now, note that $H(x,t)\neq0$ for all $x\in X$, $t\in[0,1]$ so it is well defined. It is clear that $H$ is the desired homotopy.
For the other question, if you remove an inner point from the disc, it would be homotope to $S^1$, using the same reasoning as above. If you remove a boundary point, then $D-\{p\}$ is convex, so it's contractible.
Here's a deformation retraction of $\mathbb{R}^N \setminus \{0\}$ to $S^{n-1}$. Define $\phi_t:\mathbb{R}^n \setminus \{0\} \to S^{n-1}$ by $$\phi_t(x) = (1-t)x + t \frac{x}{\|x\|}$$ Then $\phi_0$ is the identity on $\mathbb{R}^n \setminus \{0\}$ and $\phi_1$ maps to $S^{n-1}$.