As per the definition; a subset $A$ of $R^n$ has ($n$-dimensional) content zero if for every $\epsilon > 0$, there is a finite cover $\{U_1,...U_n\}$ of A by closed rectangles such that $\sum_{i=1}^{n} v(U_i) < \epsilon$.
I'm rather stuck on how to show this point. In fact, aside from the idea that the measure of any finite set is also 0, I'm not very sure on techniques for showing something has content zero in generality.
My informal progress so far consists of:
Consider that the $\lim_{n\to\infty} 1/n$ = 0. So we know that all the points in the set lie inside the set [0,1]. We can reason that there does exist a finite cover of A. We need to show that there exists a finite cover where $m(S) = 0$.
An attempt I've tried only seemed to prove that the set has Lebesgue measure zero but not content zero. Consider the cover $\bigcup_{k=1}^{\infty}[\frac{1}{k}, \frac{1}{k}]$. Consider intervals $[\frac{1}{k}, \frac{1}{k}]$. Each interval $I_k$ has m($I_k = 0$) and the union completely covers the set.
Really stuck on proving it for content zero. Would appreciate any help !