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The problem is this:

Let the matric $J$ be$$ J = \begin{bmatrix}0 & -1\\1 & 0\end{bmatrix}$$

Let $f : \Omega \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2$be an $\mathbb{R}$- differentiable function defined on $\Omega \subset \mathbb{R}^2$.

a) Show that $f \in O(\Omega)$ if and only if for any $(x, y) \in \Omega$ we have $J \circ d_{(x,y)}f = d_{(x,y)}f \circ J$.

b) Show that $f \in O(\Omega)$ if and only if for any $(x, y) \in \Omega$ and any $\theta \in \mathbb{R}$ we have $R_{\theta} \circ d_{(x, y)}f = d_{(x, y)}f \circ R_{\theta}$ where $R_{\theta} : \mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2$ denotes the rotation of angle $\theta$.

c) Let $\theta \in \mathbb{R}$. Assume that $R_{\theta} \circ d_{(x, y)}f = d_{(x, y)}f \circ R_{\theta}$ for any $(x, y) \in \Omega$. Is $f \in O(\Omega)$?

I don't know how to even start with this and i'm not sure I understood the questions with the notation used..

Any help would be much appreciated

1 Answers 1

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Hint: $f$ is $\Bbb C$-derivable in $c$ iff is $\Bbb R$-differentiable in $c$ and the differential in $c$ is $\Bbb C$-linear. This imposes a condition on the partial derivatives of $f$. Namely, the Cauchy-Riemann equations. Check that (a) is equivalent to the Cauchy-Riemann equations...