0
$\begingroup$

Let $U\in \mathbb R^n$ an open set. Thus we can take the identity map $\operatorname {Id}_U:U\to U$ to be a parametrization. My question is why this is the only parametrization of $U$. It seems easy but I couldn't prove it formally.

Definition of a parametrization:

A parametrization of class $C^k$ of a set $V\subset \mathbb R^n$ is an homeomorphism $\varphi:V_0\to V$ which is an immersion of class $C^k$ as well, defined in the open set $V_0\subset \mathbb R^m$.

1 Answers 1

3

It's not. For a simple example, take $a \in \mathbb R^n$; then $f(x) = x + a$ is another one.

  • 0
    That's weird. I'm reading a book which says there is only one parametrization.2017-02-12
  • 0
    Does $x+a$ have to be in $U$?2017-02-12
  • 0
    @user42912, perhaps your book uses an uncommon meaning for the word "parametrization". Perhaps you could post (a screenshot of) an excerpt?2017-02-12
  • 0
    Please see my edit2017-02-12
  • 0
    @user42912, with that definition, my function (with the appropriate domain and codomain) is indeed a parametrization. I think there may be a small error in your book, or perhaps you misread about the identity being the *only* parametrization.2017-02-12