I am aware of the result that if you take the cartesian product of any collection of compact sets, whether it be finite or infinite (by Tychonoff's theorem.)
My question is, suppose we have a set (let's call it $\mathcal{A}=\lbrace A_i\rbrace_{i\in I}$) of compact sets. If we define $$C=\underset{i\in I}{\Pi}A_i$$ is $C$ conmmpact. Intuitively, I would say yes, it is compact, however my TA disagreed with me and now I am here.