If the density is $$\frac1{x^2}, \ x\ge 1$$
Then the distribution function at an $y$ is
$$F(y)=\int_1^y \frac1{x^2}\ dx=-\left[\frac1x\right]_1^y=1-\frac1y, \ y\ge 1.$$
What is wrong with this?
So, you have a definite integral and not a indefinite one!
The following figure depicts the graph of the density and that of the distribution function.

The blue line is the density and the purple line is the distribution. At an $y$ the value of the purple line tells the area below the blue line from $1$ to that $y$ -- in accordance with the definition of the distribution function and that of the density
$$P(X