What is the reference here? I do not believe that statement is true for the simple reason that it is incorrect to refer to the orthogonal diagonalizing matrix $Q$. Take this simple example: $A =
\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \\
0 & 2
\end{bmatrix} $
So $A$ is diagonal, and of course conjugating $A$ by the identity leaves it diagonal, as demonstrated in the equations you've listed in the proof.
But here's another orthogonal diagonalizing matrix: $Q =
\begin{bmatrix}
0 & 1 \\
1 & 0
\end{bmatrix}.$ Check for yourself that $Q$ is orthogonal and that $QAQ^{-1} = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix}$. In a sense, $Q$ is just the linear transformations that re-indexes the basis vectors, calling $e_1' = e_2$ and $e_2' = e_1$. So of course it leaves $A$ diagonal, but it's certainly not the identity.
So here's the point: when a matrix $A$ is diagonalizable, that diagonalization is not unique. What is unique is what entries appear along the diagonal: these are the eigenvalues of $A$ and they are intrinsic to the linear operator $A$ represents. No matter what, when you diagonalize $A$ those eigenvalues will appear on the diagonal. But what order they appear in is completely arbitrary because you can always re-index your basis and make them appear in a different order (as I have done above).
So your reference is incorrect in referring to the orthogonal diagonalizing matrix $Q$. When $A$ is diagonal, the identity matrix is a diagonalizing orthogonal matrix, but others exist as well.