While trying to show that two completions of a Boolean algebra must be isomorphic following a hint in Jech, I stumbled upon this question. After reading it several times, I can't seem to understand the following step:
Now, if $b\leq_C c$ then $u\wedge b\leq_Cu\wedge c\leq_C c$. Therefore $u\leq_C c$.
From the first sentence, we infer that $c$ is an upper bound for the set $X=\{u\wedge b:b\in B , b\le_C c\}\subset B$; so it would be less than the supremum of $X$ in C. However, we know that $u$ equals the supremum of $X$ in D, so why can we say $u\le_C c$? The set over which we are taking the supremum lies in $B$, but it seems were mixing the two orders.
I also considered a proof by contradiction; if $u\not\le_C c$, then $u-c\neq 0$, and by density we can find $b_1\in B$ such that $0