The phrasing of the problem is indeed rather unclear. Here is what I would guess is meant by "$\wedge$ can be defined using only set operations" (the case of $\vee$ is similar). Let $f:\{F,T\}\to \{\emptyset,\{\emptyset\}\}$ be the bijection described, so that $f(F)=\emptyset$ and $f(T)=\{\emptyset\}$. Then your goal is to find some expression $p(A,B)$ in terms of set operations such that if $x,y\in\{F,T\}$, then $f(x\wedge y)=p(f(x),f(y))$. In other words, if you think of $F$ as being the same as $\emptyset$ and $T$ as being the same as $\{\emptyset\}$ (so that the function $f$ does nothing), then the expression $x\wedge y$ means the same thing as $p(x,y)$.
This still leaves the question of what is meant by "set operations". Perhaps these have been defined in the context of the problem; in any case, I would guess this refers to operations like union, intersection, and complement. So for instance, an example of the sort of thing $p(A,B)$ might be is $A\cup (B\cap A)$. Play around with simple expressions you can build in terms of $A$ and $B$ using these set operations and see if you can find one that works.