In Vakil's notes, he mentions that an open subscheme $U$ of a $k$-variety $X$ is automatically a $k$-variety. Why is this the case? Here a $k$-variety is defined as a reduced, separated scheme of finite type over $k$.
It is immediately clear that $U$ is separable, because our map $U\to Spec(k)$ is equal to the composition $U\hookrightarrow X\to Spec(k)$, both of which are separable maps (the former because it is monic, and the latter by definition). And it is clear that $U$ is reduced, because stalks of points in $U$ are the same as their stalks in $X$, which are all reduced.
So all I'm unsure about is, how can I see that $U$ is finite type over $k$?