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a(n) is an infinite sequence of nonzero real numbers. Prove that it has a subsequence b(n) such that b(n+1)/b(n) tends to 0,1 or infinity as n tends to infinity. I have started by looking at the case a(n) is bounded. Since every sequence has a monotonic subsequence, a(n) too has one. Call it b(n). Therefore b(n) is convergent. If the limit of b(n) is nonzero, then b(n+1)/b(n) tends to 1. What if b(n) tends to 0? Also what if a(n) is unbounded? Can I get a few hints on how to proceed?

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    By "If its limit b(n) is nonzero" do you mean "if the limit of b(n) is nonzero"?2017-02-11
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    yeah, i made a mistake. corrected it.2017-02-11
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    The following rules might help. $(a_n)\rightarrow +\infty \Rightarrow (1/a_n)\rightarrow 0$. If $(a_n)$ is a null sequence and $(a_n)>0, \forall n \Rightarrow (1/a_n)\rightarrow +\infty$. The proofs of these rules might be instructive as well.2017-02-11
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    Start with the case where every a(n) is positive and consider L the limsup of the sequence a=(a(n)). If L=oo, build a sequence b such that b(n+1)/b(n) converges to oo. If L is positive and finite, build b such that b(n+1)/b(n) converges to 1. If L=0, build b such that b(n+1)/b(n) converges to 0. Now slightly modify this argument to deal with a(n) nonzero real valued.2017-02-11
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    @shredalert I am afraid that convergent sequences, even including those diverging to oo, are only a small part of the iceberg here.2017-02-11
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    @Did New to real analysis here, so was just guessing what might help.2017-02-11
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    @Did, i do not understand when you take case L=oo.2017-02-11
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    Please be (**much**) more specific.2017-02-11

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