Suppose we are considering the residue class of all numbers $\equiv a \pmod b$, where $(a,b)=1$. Is there an elementary (and relatively simple) way to see that there is a subsequence that consists entirely of elements that are mutually coprime?
Of course, this must be a true statement, as it follows immediately by Dirichlet's Theorem. But this statement is a bit weaker, so is there perhaps a way to construct a sequence of mutually coprime integers all in the same residue class? I was thinking something like a Fermat construction (i.e. $F_n=1+\prod_1^{n-1}F_i $) would work, but I cannot see how to see this method through. Anyway, there might not even be an elementary solution, and I may be approaching my original problem in the wrong way.