Let $D=\{z: |z|<1\}$ and suppose that $f:D\rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ is analytic, one-to-one and $f(0)=0, f'(0)=1.$ Show that there exists $g:D\rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ is analytic and one-to-one such that $(g(z))^2=f(z^2).$
I proved this statement is as follows:
Since $f$ is analytic and $f(0)=0, f'(0)=1$, we have $f(z)=z+a_1z^2+a_2z^3+...$
Then, $f(z^2)=z^2(1+a_1z^2+a_2z^3+...)=z^2h(z).$ If there is $z_0\in D$ such that $h(z_0)=0$, we have $f({z_0}^2)=0$, which implies $z_0^2=0$ since $f$ is 1-1. Thus, $z_0=0.$ However, it is clear that $h(0)=1\neq 0.$ Hence, we proved that $h$ is nonzero on $D$.
Now, since $h$ and $\frac{1}{h}$ are both analytic on $D$, there is an analytic function $g_1:D\rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ such that $g_1^2=h.$ (this result follows from the theorem 13.11 in Real and Complex analysis by W. Rudin) Therefore, we define $g(z)=zg_1(z)$, it is clear that $g$ is analytic and satisfies $g(z)^2=f(z^2).$
However, I have no good idea how to explain that $g$ is 1-1. Can anyone give me some ideas how to solve this part? Thanks.