I'm trying to prove that $\forall a \in \mathbb{R}$ with $a >0$ and $n \in \mathbb{N}, \exists$ unique $x \in \mathbb{R}$ with $x>0$ such that $x^{n} =a$.
I've done the case for n=2 and a=2 but not too sure on generalisation.
Suppose $ \exists, x,y >0 \in \mathbb{R}$ st $x^{n}=y^{n}=a \Rightarrow (x^{\frac{n}{2}}-y^{\frac{n}{2}})(x^{\frac{n}{2}}+y^{\frac{n}{2}}))=0$. Then $x=y$ hence unique.
Let $$A=\{x>0:x^{n}\leq a\}$$
Let $x \in A$. Then $x >a$ and $x^{n} \leq a$. If $x \leq \frac{a}{n} \Rightarrow x \leq a$. If not then $\frac{a}{n} < x \Rightarrow x \leq x^{n} \leq a$. Hence $A$ is bounded above.
By LUB axiom $A$ has an LUB say $\alpha, \alpha \in \mathbb{R}, \alpha >0$. Let $\epsilon > 0, \exists x \in A$ st $0< \alpha - \epsilon < x \leq \alpha$.
Then $\alpha^{n}-n\alpha\epsilon+... < x^{n} \leq a, \forall \epsilon >0$. Hence $\alpha^{n} \leq a$.