I was trying to do a Taylor expansion, and could not get the result Wolfram alpha gave me.
I tried expanding $(1-x+x^2)^q$ to which Wolfram alpha produced
$$1-qx-(1/2)q(q+1)x^2.$$
I know the Taylor series is
$$f(0)+xf'(x)+x^2\frac{f''(x)}{2!} +...$$
The first term should be $1$, yet when I compute it, I arrive at $1^q$, and I am confused from here. Any advice?