QUESTION:
Prove that for all positive integers $k\leq n$:
$\sum_{i=0}^{k}{n \choose i} (-1)^i = {n-1 \choose k}(-1)^k$
MY THOUGHTS:
INDUCTION : (assuming k even) - We assume:
${n \choose 0} - {n \choose 1} + ... + {n \choose k-2} - {n \choose k-1} = {n-1 \choose k-1}$
We need to show:
${n \choose 0} - {n \choose 1} + ...-{n \choose k-1} + {n \choose k} = {n-1 \choose k-1}$
My issue here is that we can say LHS equals ${n-1 \choose k-1} + {n \choose k}$, which is close, but not quite Pascal's Rule.
Another way: I thought looking to find some bijection that can be applied.
Let's assume n is even. Writing out the left and sum and moving all the odd (negative) terms to the RHS gives (note that the last term on the RHS is simply the original RHS:
${n \choose 0} + {n \choose 2} + ... + {n \choose k} = {n \choose 1} + {n \choose 3} + ... + {n \choose k-1} + {n-1 \choose k}$
I am stuck here, but how I worked out in my mind was that:
$\bigg\{$set of even sized groups of $\leq$ n people$\bigg\}$ --> $\bigg\{$set of odd sized groups of $\leq$ n-1 people$\bigg\}$ + ${n-1 \choose k}$
Then possibly, it would have something to do with adding or removing person n. Let me know your thoughts or suggestions.