I'm trying to under the definition of an embedding mapping $\pi:X \to X/V$ where $V\subset X$ are linear spaces. I have the definition $\pi (x) = x+V$ where $x+V = \{y\in X: y-x\in V \}$.
Why is $V\subset \ker \pi$?
$\ker \pi$ is the set $\{ a\in X \;st\;\forall y\in X : y-a\notin V\}$
So then if $v\in V \implies y-v\notin V\;\forall y\in X$
But what about $v$ itself? $v-v=0\in V$
What am I missing?