I am aware that the definition of a limit $L$ for an infinite sequence $a_n$ is defined as follows
A real sequence $a_n$ tends to a limit $L$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$ if, for any arbitraty $\varepsilon > 0$, there exists $N \in \mathbb{Z}^+$ such that, for all $n \geq N$ we have $$ | a_n - L | < \varepsilon $$
However, I am unsure of how we would prove that a function $f(x)$ tends to some limit $L^*$ as $x \rightarrow x_0$.
Having thought about it, I've decided that it may be done by finding some sequence $x_n$ that tends to $x_0$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$, substituting this sequence into the function to give a new sequence $a_n = f(x_n)$.
Would proving that $a_n \rightarrow L^*$ as $n \rightarrow \infty$ suffice to show that the function converges to the limit $L^*$?