Let $a,b,n$ be positive integers. If $\gcd(a,n) = \gcd(b,n)$, then there is positive integer $c$ such that $\gcd(c,n)=1$ and $ac \equiv b \pmod n$
Is it true?
Let $a,b,n$ be positive integers. If $\gcd(a,n) = \gcd(b,n)$, then there is positive integer $c$ such that
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number-theory
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0Hi and welcome to the site! Since this is a site that encourages and helps with learning, it is best if you show your own ideas and efforts in solving the question. Can you edit your question to add your thoughts and ideas about it? – 2017-02-09
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0Also, don't get discouraged by the downvote. I downvoted the question and voted to close it because at the moment, it is not up to site standards (you have shown no work you did on your own). If you edit your question so that you show what you tried and how far you got, I will not only remove the downvote, I will add an upvote. – 2017-02-09