Say we're given a function of x and y, f(x,y) = 2x for 0 < x < 1, x < y < x + 1, and 0 otherwise.
If we were asked either questions:
1. Find the conditional variance of Y given X = x
Or
2. Find the conditional expectation of Y given X = x
We could solve the problems by finding the conditional density function and then go on and solve by using the definitions of conditional variance/expectation.
However, since the function is of only 1 variable (x in this case), we can use the "shortcut" method and observe that: since f(x,y) has no factor of y, y must be uniform on x and x+1, so Y ~ uniform (x, x+1). Then we can apply the quick expectation and variance properties of a uniform random variable and solve questions 1 and 2.
My question:
I just don't really understand any of this logic. I mean, I can identify the if we're given a joint density function of just 1 variable, then we can use the shortcut approach stated above, but I don't really know the reasoning why, and neither the reason why "since f(x,y) has no factor of y, y must be uniform on x and x+1".
Can anyone maybe give me a explanation why we can use the shortcut since "y is uniform(x, x+1)?"
Really appreciate your time and feedback, thanks in advance.