Consider a Bernoulli-trial with $n$ trials and probability $p$ of each trial. Following the sigma-rules the probability the probability that the number of successes $k$ lies in the interval $[\mu - 1,96\sigma;\mu + 1,96 \sigma]$ where $\mu = np$ is approximately 95 percent. I.e. with this probability the following inequality holds:
$$ np - 1,96 \sqrt{np(1-p)} \leq k \leq np + 1,96 \sqrt{np(1-p)} $$
or with $h = \frac{k}{n}$:
$$ p - 1,96\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}} \leq h \leq p + 1,96 \sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}} $$
You get the limits of this interval by solving the equation:
$$ p \pm 1,96\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}} = h $$
This derivation is from a (german) high school level math book. Now the book proceeds that one may circumvent the pain to solve this equation exactly, one may easiliy get an approximate solution as follows:
If $n$ is very large ($n > 1000$) or $h$ between $0,3$ and $0,7$ or $\sigma = \sqrt{np(1-p)}$ larger than $3$, one may get the following approximation:
$$ p(1-p) = h(1-h) $$
i.e.
$$ p = h \mp 1,96\sqrt{\frac{h(1-h)}{n}} $$
Why is this approximation valid? I don't see it for none of the three conditions.