I found this problem that asks to prove that
the subspace of $l^2(\mathbb{N})$, where $M = [\{x_n\}_{n=1}^\infty∈l^2(\mathbb{N}) \mid \sum\limits_{n = 1}^\infty \frac{1+e^{in}}{n^{3/2}}x_n=0]$ is closed in $l^2(j \in \mathbb{N})$.
How should I approach this to fit the inner product definition? I would appreciate any guidance on the mechanics.
What I know:
- $l^2$ space is closed if it contains all of its limit points.
- Given a subspace V of a Hilbert space, $\mathcal H$, we define the orthogonal complement of V to be $V^{\perp}:=[{f\in\mathcal H |\langle f,g\rangle,∀g \in V}] $
- $V^{\perp}$ is a closed subspace of $\mathcal H$, where $\langle f,g\rangle=0$, $∀g \in V$. Need to show that since the inner product is continuous, then $\lim_{n \to \infty}\langle f_n,g\rangle = \langle f,g\rangle$ ⇒ $\langle f,g\rangle=0$, and so $f\in V^{\perp}$.